Yes, i understand now. And my response is that this is debateable. I consider that an act of war is the same as declaring war, and if the president engages in act of war he is in fact declaring war and therefore ursurping congressional power. Otherwise, article 1, section 8 where congress is declared to have the power to declare was has no meaning, given that it is no necessary to confer constitutionality to any war, given that the president's ability to engage in acts of war are constitutional in on themselves. This makes Congress' enumarated power of war declaration comestic and useless since its very beginning.
I think you're confusing practice with constitutionality ergo legality. The president has the ability to engage in acts of war regardless of whether congress declares war or not, but this does not make the engaging and prosecuting of war constitutional. In practice, Congress no longer declares wars, but merely gives its consent directly or indirectly to the acts of war that the president may engage in. Declaring war seems redundant when an act of war already brings you into a state of war, and declaring war only implicates consent in this instance.
I think i'm going to talk with my constitutional law professor now.
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