as Maroot brushed upon anyone with a passing knowledge of the history of slavery knows capitalism was the agent of its final destruction, not what engendered it. various forms of slavery were more or less endemic in all pre-capitalist societies, from Rome to the Aztecs to the various Chinese dynasties to the Caliphates to the Eastern European lands where we gets its English etymology. what enabled the abolition of slavery (and its various corollaries such as serfdom), an institution that had been around for the vast majority of human history, was the rise of capitalism. it is no coincidence the first abolitionist state was also the first capitalist state and the first state to undergo industrialization in Great Britain. within Britain it became rapidly apparent compulsory labor (with all the non-production costs of compulsion and enforcement) simply could not compete with the efficiency of profit motivated wage labor. the clearest microcosm of this phenomenon was in our own country where the Northerners, who were no more moral or righteous than the Southerners, quickly industrialized and became trading and manufacturing economies, and so had relatively little economic impulse to preserve slavery when the moral demands of abolition came to be made (even in states like New York and New Jersey with large slave populations). conversely the Southern states remained pre-capitalist agrarian societies that financed their lavish societal ways through the selling of crops, notably cotton, and so when the same moral tradewinds came they were promptly ignored by a vested plantation class that had no economic impulse to heed them.
in essence capitalism destroyed slavery simply because capitalism destroys inefficiency, and slavery is inefficient.
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