
Originally Posted by
careswww
I always wondered, if, say, a RDM casts sleep 1 on a mob with no resist. And I cast Sleep2 on it afterwards, with DRK with no chance to actually land it, will it last the full duration?
Assuming I'm reading this correctly:
RDM casts Sleep I
DRK casts Sleep II (but with gimped enfeebling magic skill so not likely to land it)
either one of 2 things will happen
1: Your Sleep II will be resited (it tells you this even if the mob is already asleep)
2: Your Sleep II will land and overwrite Sleep I but be subject to the normal variables that determine sleep duration.
Even if the mob is already slept you can tell if your spell would have landed by the text.
"has no effect on XYZ" = you would have landed the spell but the mob was already asleep so there's no effect.
vs.
"resists the spell!" = you did not land the spell