
Originally Posted by
Neosutra
Not exactly, I said that time is non-existent to light waves, not simply a point.
Potato, potato.
None of it. I'm a post doc that currently works in the defense industry, I haven't worked at the national lab or a university in a few years and the majority of my TOE work is done with my wife and a few previous colleagues, thus I would classify my work as more casual (or at least not professional, since I'm not getting paid for this). Meaning I neither find other theories intimidating (quite the contrary), nor do I attack other ideas if they don't fit my current models. I am simply requiring either a significantly more in-depth response to several or your claims, or a reprisal from the constant barrage of these knot theory tangents that have filled your posts.
Very well, I retract that and apologize, it is something I encounter from time to time though.
You dont have to experimentally determine that R=1 at a gravitational potential of 0, it is an clear observation. That is like saying "well they didnt experimentally prove that 2+2=4, so it is arbitrary".
When g is slowly varying, it gives the fractional rate of change of the ticking rate. If the ticking rate is everywhere almost this same, the fractional rate of change is the same as the absolute rate of change, so that:
dR/dx = g = -dV/dx
Im restating this point to point out the "dx" here. The gravitational potential of 0 comes from expanding out into infinity as stated, but think about that for a second. That means there is ZERO gravitational potential in the system of infinite distance:
F=G(m1*m2)/r^2 -> So at infinite r, F=0.
There are plenty of experiments validating this effect and rate of clock changes at 0 potential and beyond. Im not sure why you are still sticking with "arbitrary". But anyways, lets move onto what you are claiming you did and what you got:
Which experiment shows the rate of clock ticking at 0 mass is equal to 1?
I've been searching far and wide for it.
Even a minor shift would mean permutations in the non quantum realms which are not observed through observation.
Do you know of tests showing accurately the rate of clock change for sub-classical masses in flat spacetime?
2.17644(11)×10−8 kg is the plank mass.
You're picture of:
http://i341.photobucket.com/albums/o...equalsmass.jpg
Doesnt actually say anything beyond what you just stated: You're setting R=1 at Mp, instead of Du (Diameter Universe). But R = 1 at Au.. (or more specifically 0 gravitational potential).
You cant just arbitrarily change that value, as R is not 1 when you apply non zero gravitational potentials.
Do you know of an experiment that shows that you must set R to equal 1 at 0 mass/potential/infinity?
Do you know of any reason besides worrying about the adjustment to the curve?
Its not that its inaccurate at lower relativistic energy levels, the effects just decay exponentially as you move away from the natural state (light speed). That "wiggle" room in time dialation at lower velocities is still testable (albeit with really fast clocks!) and still invalidates your curve shift.
It has yet to be tested, and it has yet to be shown that R = 1 should occur at 0 mass, I've been looking.
If motion through space reaches a peak at light speed for a massive object (which can't accelerate all the way to light speed because having rest mass takes up some of that ability itself), then as you move away from that speed your time dilation is decreased dramatically.
If the curve stops at 1, at zero mass, then light interacts with time in a classical manner. One second which we measure by tracking a beam of light would be "observed" to take one second for that beam of light.
Light would interact with time in a causal manner, going against what you yourself said, that the rate should be non-existent to a beam of light.
That is a direct implication of R = 1 at F = 0 though.
Great, what you're describing is premature enlightenment. Its what happens when a reasonable intelligent person obtains enough information to redefine how they perceive the world, but not enough information to let them realize how little they still know. We've probably read the same books (oh and I have my degrees), so lets drop the "I learn really well". The IQ/nerd broadcasting works great in college, but the readers of this thread (specifically the several phd graduates and/or close to graduates arent impressed. You're preaching to the choir. Odds are every person here was the smartest person in their school/college and impress the shit out of themselves with their massive brain muscles, but sadly to impress each other we need -results-, not just hollow bragging.
Oh, I know how little I know, but I also know there is little about GR that I don't know at this point.
I wasn't saying it to impress anyone, was simply pointing out that my self-education at an incredibly early age was enough to breeze through school, though being intelligent doesn't make you wise enough to see that breezing through school easily = easy scholarships and shit.
That didn't occur to me til years later, I'm definitely a dumbass about many things.