This thread is about the relation between magic acc and INT.
Summary :
1 INT= 1 mac if dINT<=15
1 INT=0.5 mac if dINT>15
Tested on enfeebling magic.
what's new ? Previously it was assumed that the threshold was dint=10 ; also confirms that the formulae are the same for enfeebling magic (previous tests were done with elemental magic).
Method
*I used the fact that Om'hmpende don't attack you if you hit them for zero at my advantage to spam spells on them. If you don't know what I mean, check this thread
*I used bind as it tends to wear off after less than 20 sec, and has a low MP cost.
*You only have access to the "resist" rate and not the "landing" rate, since you can't see on the log if the spell half resisted or just didn't resist. It's not a problem though, if p is the landing rate, then (1-p)^2 is the resist rate, so the test give (1-p)^2 with a confident interval [a,b], which in turn give p with a confident interval [1-sqrt(b),1-sqrt(a)].
* the hitrates above 50% are done with BLM and the hitrates below 50% are done with PUP/RDM.
* targets are even match om'hpende, they have 58 INT.
results
Their magic evasion seem very low, to the point that a gearless BLM has about 50% landing rate (=you fully resist only 25% of the time). I will present the data in the folloing format :
Test:skill,magic accuracy,int:resist/total= estimated landing rate @ [confidence interval]
For the persons not used to the terminology, the confident interval is the interval in which you are 95% certain that the landing rate will be. The estimated landing rate is 1-sqrt(resist/total).
target's int is 58
first tests are done on BL75/RNG1
last tests are done on PUP75/RDM37Code:Test1:skill=246,mac=0,int=55:1865/7457=49.99%@[49.02,50.98] Test2:skill=246,mac=0,int=98:287/7418=80.33%@[79.24,81.48] Test3:skill=246,mac=0,int=68:711/5054=62.49%@[61.24,63.79] Test4:skill=246,mac=0,int=73:482/4896=68.62%@[67.32,69.98] Test5:skill=246,mac=0,int=78:462/5639=71.38%@[70.15,72.66]
interpretationCode:Test6:skill=142,mac=8,int=73:3024/3829=11.13%@[10.41,11.86] Test7:skill=142,mac=8,int=67:3605/4265=8.06%@[7.47,8.65] Test8:skill=142,mac=8,int=81:4709/6348=13.87%@[13.25,14.5]
If you assume that magic hit rate can only take integer values, test 1 gives 50%. Which means your magic accuracy is matching the magic evasion of the mob. Magic evasion should therefore be 243.
Test 2-5 show what happens past 50% hit rate. The difference between test1 and 3 is ~ 13% and int went from dint=-3 to dint=+10, so 13 int variation ; this confirms that 1 int=1mac.
Test 4 and 5 show what happens between dint=10 and dint=20. The difference clearly shows that going from dint=10 to dint=15 is 5%. This is a surprise because we thought the 1int=1mac formula stopped at dint=10. Test 5 shows that going from dint=15 to 20 is only about 3%, so it seems the formula 1int=0.5 mac starts past dint=15.
Finally, the difference between test 2 and test 5 (dint = 30 > 40 ) gives about 10% hitrate, so the formula 2int=1mac seems to hold until dint=40.
Tests 6,7 and 8 confirm that this relation still happens under 50% hit rate, which I've seen contested on various forums (by idiots).
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