
Originally Posted by
Maaglin
Why is this issue so geared to gays and only gays? There's a whole list of people and groups who might desire to gain the benefits of marriage, but who are not able to because the state wont grant them to them. I'm talking specifically about the benefits granted by the government. Not the contract you enter into when you get married. Those are technically two different things.
Gay couples can today enter into a marriage contract. But if they do, the state still wont grant them the benefits. In the same way, a pair of siblings could enter into a marriage contract, but the sate wont grant them benefits for doing so either.
Why is this so hard for people to wrap their heads around? There is a contract which you agree to enter when you get married. This includes all the agreements which exist between the parties of the contract. Like shared property, income, power of attorney, inheritance, etc.
There are *also* a set of state granted benefits. Those benefits require that you meet a set of criteria. One of those criteria is that you agree to enter into the contract. Another is that you be a couple. Another is that the couple not consist of two people who are close relations. Another is that both parties be able to enter into the contract. Another is that neither party are already bound by an existing marriage contract. And finally... one of the conditions is that the couple consist of a male and a female.
The criteria which prevents gay couples from gaining access to those state benefits is only one of a list of criteria. This is not my opinion. It's a fact.
If you are to argue that the criteria which excludes gay couples from gaining those benefits is unconstitutional, you have to discover what the purpose of the criteria and benefits are in the first place. The SCotUS test for discrimination is that it is allowable if the discrimination is consistent with the purpose of the law. So it's not unconstitutional to set the voting age at 18 because the intent of the law is to limit it to people who are old enough to make sound decisions about their lives and the world around them, for example. It's also not unconstitutional to create a housing program which targets poor minority neighborhoods if the purpose is to help address disproportionate housing among said groups.
It's not automatically unconstitutional to have discriminatory criteria. You have to examine the law, determine its purpose, and determine if the discriminatory criteria is consistent with that purpose (and if the purpose itself is not unconstitutional of course). A purpose of "encourage children to be born in an environment in which both biological parents are bound by marriage contract" is consistent. It matches all of the criteria in the marriage statute in question. And it absolutely means that not granting said benefits to gay couples is *not* unconstitutional discrimination.
If you can't even noodle out why we have those benefits, then you can't possibly hold an intelligent position on the question at hand. You're literally arguing from a position of ignorance.